(Luke 17:20-37)
You may be wondering, why raise such a question? After all, 2 Peter 3:10-12 (NWT) clearly says the following: “Yet Jehovah’s day will come as a thief, in which the heavens will pass away with a hissing noise, but the elements being intensely hot will be dissolved, and earth and the works in it will be discovered. 11 Since all these things are thus to be dissolved, what sort of persons ought YOU to be in holy acts of conduct and deeds of godly devotion, 12 awaiting and keeping close in mind the presence of the day of Jehovah, through which [the] heavens being on fire will be dissolved and [the] elements being intensely hot will melt!”[i] So is the case proven? Simply put, no, it is not.
An examination of the NWT Reference Bible finds the following: In the NWT for verse 12 there is a reference note on the phrase “day of Jehovah” which states ““Of Jehovah,” J7,8,17; CVgc (Gr.), tou Ky·riʹou; אABVgSyh, “of God.” See App 1D.” Likewise, in verse 10 “Jehovah’s day” has a reference “See App 1D”. The Greek Interlinear version on Biblehub and Kingdom Interlinear[ii] has “the day of the Lord (Kyriou)” in verse 10 and verse 12 has “of the of the God day” (Yes, no typo here!), which is based on certain manuscripts although the CVgc (Gr.) has “of the Lord”. There are a few points to note here:
- Of the 28 English translations available on BibleHub.com, except for the Aramaic Bible in Plain English[iii], no other Bible puts ‘Jehovah’ or equivalent in verse 10, because they follow the Greek Text as per manuscripts, rather than making any substitution of ‘Lord’ with ‘Jehovah’.
- The NWT uses the points made in Appendix 1D of the 1984 Reference edition of the NWT, which has since been updated in the NWT 2013 Edition , as the basis for the substitution, except neither of which hold water in this case.[iv]
- There is the possibility that the original Greek manuscripts have lost a word between the two words translated “of the”. If it was ‘Lord’ / ‘Kyriou’ (and this is speculation) it would read ‘the day of the Lord of the God’ which would make sense in context. (The day belonging to the Lord who belongs to the Almighty God, or the day of the Lord of [Almighty] God).
- We need to examine the context of this scripture and the other scriptures containing the same phrase to examine the case for justification of the substitution.
There are four other scriptures which in the NWT refers to “the day of Jehovah”. They are as follows:
- 2 Timothy 1:18 (NWT) says about Onesiphorus “May the Lord grant him to find mercy from Jehovah in that day”. The main subject of the chapter and the chapter which follows, is about Jesus Christ. Therefore, when, as per the Greek manuscripts, all 28 English Bible translations on BibleHub.com translate this passage as “may the Lord grant to him to find mercy from the Lord in that day”, this is the most reasonable understanding in the context. In other words, the Apostle Paul was saying, because of the special consideration of Onesiphorus gave him when imprisoned in Rome, he was wishing that the Lord (Jesus Christ) would grant Onesiphorus mercy from him on the Lord’s day, a day they understood was coming.
- 1 Thessalonians 5:2 (NWT) warns “For you yourselves know quite well that Jehovah’s Day is coming exactly as a thief in the night”. But the context in 1 Thessalonians 4:13-18 immediately preceding this verse is talking about faith in Jesus death and resurrection. That those surviving to the presence of the Lord will not precede those who have already died. Also, that the Lord himself with descend from heaven, “and those who are dead in union with Christ will rise first”. They would also “be caught away in clouds to meet the Lord in the air, and thus [they] shall always be with the Lord”. If it is the Lord that is coming, it is only reasonable to understand that the day is “the day of the Lord” as per the Greek Text, rather than “the day of Jehovah” as per the NWT.
- 2 Peter 3:10 discussed above also talks about “the day of the Lord” coming as a thief. We have no better witness than the Lord Jesus Christ himself. In Revelation 3:3, he spoke to the congregation of Sardis saying that he “will come as a thief” and in Revelation 16:15 “Look, I am coming as a thief”. These are the only instances of these expressions found in the scriptures about “coming as a thief” and both refer to Jesus Christ. Based on the weight of this evidence therefore it is reasonable to conclude that the received Greek text containing ‘Lord’ is the original text and should not be tampered with.
- 2 Thessalonians 2:1-2 says “respecting the presence of our Lord Jesus Christ and our being gathered together to him, we request of you not to be quickly shaken from your reason nor to be excited either through an inspired expression...to the effect that the day of Jehovah is here”. Once again, the Greek text has ‘Kyriou’ / ‘Lord’ and in context it makes more sense that it should be “the day of the Lord” as it is the Lord’s presence, not that of Jehovah.
- Finally Acts 2:20 quoting Joel 2:30-32 says “before the great and illustrious day of Jehovah arrives. And everyone who calls on the name of Jehovah will be saved”. At least here, there is some justification for substituting the Greek text’s ‘Lord’ with ‘Jehovah’ as the original text in Joel contained Jehovah’s name. However, that assumes that under inspiration Luke was not applying this prophecy to Jesus as per the Bible they used (whether a Greek, Hebrew, or Aramaic). Once again all other translations contain “before the coming of the day of the Lord. And everyone who calls on the name of the Lord will be saved” or the equivalent. Points to bear in mind that would support this as the correct translation include Acts 4:12 when referring to Jesus it states “Furthermore there is no salvation in anyone else, for there is not another name under heaven...by which we must get saved”. (see also Acts 16:30-31, Romans 5:9-10, Romans 10:9, 2 Timothy 1:8-9) This would indicate that the emphasis on whose name to call on, had changed now that Jesus had sacrificed his life for mankind. Therefore once again, we find there is no justification to change the Greek Text.
Obviously if we are to conclude that these scriptures should be translated as “the day of the Lord” we need to address the question as to whether there is any other scriptural evidence that there is a “day of the Lord”. What do we find? We find that there are at least 10 scriptures which talk about the “day of the Lord (or Jesus Christ)”. Let us examine them and their context.
- Philippians 1:6 (NWT) “For I am confident of this very thing, that he who started a good work in YOU will carry it to completion until the day of Jesus Christ”. This verse speaks for itself, assigning this day to Jesus Christ.
- In Philippians 1:10 (NWT) The Apostle Paul encouraged “that YOU may be flawless and not be stumbling others up to the day of Christ” This verse also speaks for itself. Again, the day is specifically assigned to Christ.
- Philippians 2:16 (NWT) encourages the Philippians to be “keeping a tight grip on the word of life, that I [Paul] may have cause for exultation in Christ’s day”. Once again, this verse speaks for itself.
- 1 Corinthians 1:8 (NWT) The Apostle Paul encouraged early Christians, “while YOU are eagerly waiting for the revelation of our Lord Jesus Christ. 8 He will also make YOU firm to the end, that YOU may be open to no accusation in the day of our Lord Jesus Christ”. This passage of scripture links the revelation of Jesus with the day of our Lord Jesus.
- 1 Corinthians 5:5 (NWT) Here the Apostle Paul wrote “in order that the spirit may be saved in the day of the Lord”. Yet again, the context is talking about in the name of Jesus Christ and in the power of Jesus and the NWT Reference Bible has a cross reference to 1 Corinthians 1:8 quoted above.
- 2 Corinthians 1:14 (NWT) Here the Apostle Paul was discussing those who had become Christians saying: “just as YOU have also recognized, to an extent, that we are a cause for YOU to boast, just as YOU will also be for us in the day of our Lord Jesus”. Paul was here highlighting how they could point to having helped one another find and remain in Christ’s love.
- 2 Timothy 4:8 (NWT) Speaking about himself near his death, the Apostle Paul wrote “From this time on there is reserved for me the crown of righteousness, which the Lord, the righteous judge, will give me as a reward in that day, yet not only to me, but also to all those who have loved his manifestation”. Here again, his presence or manifestation is linked to “the day of the Lord” that Paul understood to be coming.
- Revelation 1:10 (NWT) The Apostle John wrote “By inspiration I came to be in the Lord’s Day”. The Revelation was given by the Lord Jesus to the Apostle John. The focus and subject of this opening chapter (like many of those that follow) is Jesus Christ. This instance of ‘Lord’ is therefore correctly translated.
- 2 Thessalonians 1:6-10 (NWT) Here the Apostle Paul discusses “the time he [Jesus] comes to be glorified in connection with his holy ones and to be regarded in that day with wonder in connection with all those who exercised faith, because the witness we gave met with faith among YOU”. The timing of this day is at “the revelation of the Lord Jesus from heaven with his powerful angels”.
- Finally, having looked at the biblical context we come to our theme scripture: Luke 17:22, 34-35, 37 (NWT) “Then he said to the disciples: “Days will come when YOU will desire to see one of the days of the Son of man but YOU will not see [it].”” (bold and underline added) How are we to understand this verse? It clearly indicates there would be more than one “day of the Lord”.
Matthew 10:16-23 indicates “YOU will by no means complete the circuit of the cities of Israel until the Son of man arrives [properly: comes]”. The conclusion we can draw from this scripture in context is that most of those disciples listening to Jesus would see “one of the days of the Lord [Son of Man]” come in their lifetime. The context shows he had to be discussing the time period after his death and resurrection, because the persecution described in this passage of scripture did not begin until after Jesus death. The account in Acts 24:5 amongst others indicates that the declaring of the good news had gone far and wide before the start of the Jewish revolt in 66 AD, but not necessarily exhaustively to all the cities of Israel.
Accounts where Jesus expands on his prophecy in Luke 17 include Luke 21 and Matthew 24 and Mark 13. Each of these accounts contain warnings about two events. One event would be the destruction of Jerusalem, which occurred in 70 AD. The other event would be a long time in the future when we would “not know on what day your Lord is coming”. (Matthew 24:42).
Conclusion 1
It therefore is sensible to conclude that the first “day of the Lord” would be the judgement of fleshly Israel in the first century with the destruction of the Temple and Jerusalem in 70 AD.
What would happen on that later, second day? They would “desire to see one of the days of the Son of man but YOU will not see [it]” Jesus warned them. It would be because it would happen long after their lifetime. What would happen then? According to Luke 17:34-35 (NWT) “I tell YOU, in that night two [men] will be in one bed; the one will be taken along, but the other will be abandoned. 35 There will be two [women] grinding at the same mill; the one will be taken along, but the other will be abandoned”.
Also, Luke 17:37 adds: “So in response they said to him: “Where, Lord?” He said to them: “Where the body is, there also the eagles will be gathered together”. (Matthew 24:28) Who was the body? Jesus was the body, as he explained in John 6:52-58. He also confirmed this at the instigation of the memorial of his death. If people figuratively ate his body then “even that one will live because of me”. Those ones taken along and therefore saved would be those who figuratively ate of his body by partaking of the memorial celebration. Where would they be taken? Just as the eagles gather to a body, so would those with faith in Jesus be taken to him (the body) even as 1 Thessalonians 4:14-18 describes, being “caught away in the clouds to meet the Lord in the air”.
Conclusion 2
Thus, the indication is that the resurrection of the chosen ones, the war of Armageddon and the day of judgement all occur in a future “day of the Lord”. A day that the early Christians would not see in their lifetime. This “day of the Lord” has not yet occurred and so it can be looked forward to. As Jesus stated in Matthew 24:23-31, 36-44 “42 Keep on the watch, therefore, because YOU do not know on what day YOUR Lord is coming”. (See also Mark 13:21-37)
Some might wonder if this article is an attempt to downgrade or eliminate Jehovah. Never may that be the case. He is God Almighty and our Father. However, we must always remember to get the proper scriptural balance and that “whatever it is that YOU do in word or in work, do everything in the name of the Lord Jesus, thanking God the Father through him”. (Colossians 3:17) Yes, whatever the Lord Jesus Christ does on his day, “the day of the Lord” will be for the glory of his Father, Jehovah. (Philippians 3:8-11). The Lord’s day will be just as the resurrection of Lazarus was, about which Jesus said, it “is for the glory of God, in order that the Son of God may be glorified through it” (John 11:4).
If we are unaware of whose day is coming then we could unwittingly be ignoring important aspects of our worship. Even as Psalm 2:11-12 reminds us to “serve Jehovah with fear and be joyful with trembling. 12 Kiss the son, that He may not become incensed and YOU may not perish [from] the way”. In ancient times, kissing, especially of a King or God shows allegiance or submission. (See 1 Samuel 10:1, 1 Kings 19:18). Surely, if we do not show the proper respect for God’s firstborn son, our Lord Jesus Christ, then he will rightly conclude that we do not appreciate his important and vital role in carrying out God’s will.
In conclusion John 14:6 reminds us “Jesus said to him: “I am the way and the truth and the life. No one comes to the Father except through me.””
Yes, ‘the Lord’s day’ will also be ‘Jehovah’s day’ in that the Lord Jesus Christ does everything for the benefit of his Father’s will. But by the same token it is vital we give due respect to the part Jesus will play in bringing that about.
We are also reminded of the importance in not tampering with the text of the Holy Bible because of our own agenda. Our Father Jehovah is more than capable of ensuring his name was not been forgotten or omitted from the scriptures where necessary. After all, he has ensured this is the case with the Hebrew Scriptures / Old Testament. For the Hebrew Scriptures there are sufficient manuscripts to be able to ascertain where the name ‘Jehovah’ was substituted with ‘God’ or ‘Lord.’ Yet, despite many more manuscripts of the Greek Scriptures / New Testament, not one contains the Tetragrammaton nor a Greek form of Jehovah, ‘Iehova’.
Truly, let us always keep in mind ‘the day of the Lord’, so that when he comes as a thief, we will not be found asleep. Likewise, let us not be persuaded by shouts of ‘here is the Christ ruling invisibly’ even as Luke warned “people will say to YOU, ‘See there!’ or, ‘See here!’ Do not go out or chase after [them]”. (Luke 17:22) For when the day of the Lord comes the whole earth will know it. “For even as the lightning, by its flashing, shines from one part under heaven to another part under heaven, so the Son of man will be”. (Luke 17:23)
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[i] New World Translation (NWT) Reference Edition (1989)
[ii] Kingdom Interlinear Translation, published by the Watchtower BTS.
[iii] The ‘Aramaic Bible in Plain English’ available on Biblehub.com is considered a poor translation by scholars. The writer has no view on the matter other than noticing in the course of research that its renderings in many places often tend to be different from all mainstream translations found on Biblehub and also the NWT. On this rare occasion, it agrees with the NWT.
[iv] The writer of this review is of the opinion that unless the context clearly demands it, (which in these instances it does not) no substitutions of ‘Lord’ by ‘Jehovah’ should be made. If Jehovah did not see fit to preserve his name in manuscripts in these places what right do translators have to think that they know better?
Archived Comments
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Comment by Meleti Vivlon on 2019-05-22 10:19:32
Tadua, thank you for this well researched article. I concur that those scriptures in the Christian Scriptures rendered as "Jehovah's Day" in the NWT are mistranslated and I think you've made a superb argument to that effect.
However, when you get into the interpretation of Luke 17:22 and Matthew 10:23, I would prefer us not to be categorical.
The fact that "days" is in the plural does not mean that the days being referred to are multiple "days of the Lord", a phrase that to the best of my knowledge appears nowhere in Scripture. The context does not indicate he is speaking about multiple occurrences when he will return in judgment. Given this, I find it odd you would make this your theme text. The theme based on the title is a comparison between the NWT rendering and the actual text when referring to (singular) "the day of Jehovah" vs. "the day of the Lord". And you make an excellent argument on that theme.
Therefore, when Jesus says, “Days will come when you will desire to see one of the days of the Son of man, but you will not see it," could he not be speaking of how they would yearn for even one more day with him in the flesh?
The following verses speak of how this yearning would be exploited by false prophets trying to convince them that the Christ has returned invisibly or secretly. Been there, done that!
Matthew 10:23 is similar to Luke 17:22 in that it is an ambiguous statement for which no clarifying scriptures exist. Of course, ambiguous verses cannot be used to prove a point, unless the ambiguity can be eliminated by the use of other scriptures. What does Jesus mean by the arrival? Is there any place in Scripture that ties the destruction of Jerusalem with the arrival or coming of the Son of Man?
In Matthew 16:28 we read: “Truly I say to you that there are some of those standing here who will not taste death at all until first they see the Son of man coming in his Kingdom.” (Mt 16:28)
The very next verses speak of the transfiguration. So does Matthew 10:23 refer to this? Clearly, they hadn't completed the circuit of the cities prior to seeing the transfiguration or as Jesus put it, 'seeing the Son of man coming in his Kingdom'.
I don't see evidence for a dual fulfillment such as the Organization of Jehovah's Witnesses teaches, in these verses. Indeed, based on all the verses you've so painstakenly extracted for us to review in this article (I thank you for that.) it seems clear that there really is only one "day of the Lord", and that has yet to arrive.Reply by samisaac on 2019-05-22 14:50:07
Thank you both Tadua and Meleti, I am also happy to see that, although you two collaborate on this blog, that this fact doesn’t prevent you from giving criticism and also that you did so in a balanced and friendly manner. There are so many people, even Christians that seem to think, either you say nothing and agree with everything, or if you disagree, you’re mad like a bee and yell and scream and use the most creative insults possible. Thanks, people
Reply by Vox Ratio on 2019-05-22 22:22:18
Hi Meleti,
I understand your reasoning, and I concur with your desire to eschew theologies that are often all too eager for dualistic fulfillments. Nevertheless, I think that there might be an even simpler interpretation that is worth noting:
If Mathew 10:23 was not a direct reference to the Judean destruction in 70 CE, then can a plain reading of this pericope still make sense? Why, yes! Since even if the Son of Man’s arrival was thousands of years into the future, it would still be true that his disciples did not complete their work of evangelisation in Israel before his arrival. After all, one cannot continue to evangelise a people that no longer exist. Ergo, this would mean that the disciples really didn’t finish the circuit of Israel before the Son of Man arrived precisely because Israel was destroyed before his arrival.
[As an aside, I happen to think that Christ did come in judgment against Israel since by the time of the Jewish revolt he had already been given executive authority in heaven and on earth (Mat. 28:18). As such, no significant decision could be made without his approval. What’s more, Jesus also applied the cloud judgment passages in Daniel 7 to himself and avowed that his persecutors would be forced to acknowledge his authority over them as their Messiah (cf. Mat. 26:64; Dan. 7:13f)]
Reply by lost in space on 2019-05-23 15:06:25
Excellent teamwork all round, brothers and sisters.
Reply by messenger on 2019-05-25 22:09:13
With regard to what Christ referred to at Matthew 16:28 where we read: “Truly I say to you that there are some of those standing here who will not taste death at all until first they see the Son of man coming in his Kingdom.” (Mt 16:28) Christ wasn't necessarily referring to the transfiguration, while that is one possibility. I know it's what WT taught us. But WT interprets the Bible like a blind man attempting to cross a street without a seeing-eye dog or a cane.
The apostle John in his Revelation saw Christ in his glory, and in his kingdom. Also, to believe that none of the other apostles received some similar experience, as did Stephen and Paul or John, is to make the assumption that all miracles from God must be recorded in the Bible, for the purpose that all people can read about God's miracles. While that's one purpose of God performing miracles it's not the only purpose.
My position that the purpose of miracles is not just to influence broader society through biblical scriptures (John 21:25), makes it quite possible others that were present when Christ made that statement could have seem him in his glory, as did Paul, Stephen, and John, who were said IN SCRIPTURE to see Christ in all his glory. The SEEING could have been a manifestation of Christ's in a temporal presence as was Paul's and Stephen's experience. Because Christ was at that time in his glory and King over the Christian congregation (Colossians 1:13); or it could have been a vision of the future, as when John saw Christ in heaven. And again, some things are revealed in scripture, but not all things. We can't know who else back then saw similar things, that were present when Christ offered the statement recorded at Matthew 16:28.
Comment by Bernardbooks on 2019-05-22 11:38:43
Hello Tadua,
Thank you for sharing your research.
There is one other scripture that links the idea of the thief with Jesus day that I didn’t see on the list.
Matthew 24:43, 44
“Keep on the watch, therefore, because you do not know on what day your Lord is coming. But know one thing: If the householder had known in what watch the thief was coming, he would have kept awake and not allowed his house to be broken into.
On this account, you too prove yourselves ready, because the Son of man is coming at an hour that you do not think to be it.”
I think the organization’s effort to make Jesus day and Jehovah’s day two separate events is a deliberate and concerted attempt to hold up their 1914 invisible parousia teaching.
Regarding Luke 17 I noticed that Jesus mentions the “days of Noah” and the “days of Lot” being like the “days of the son of man” but then in each case he then focuses on the specific “day” when the flood came, the “day” when fire came down from heaven, and then finally the “day” when the son of man would be revealed.
Comment by messenger on 2019-05-25 18:57:24
I only see the difference in whether the scripture says the Lord’s Day or Jehovah’s Day carrying a lot of significance if, as Jehovah’s Witnesses do, a Christian believes the Bible teaches Christ is not HIS God. If a Christian believes the opposite the wording becomes, in that case, relatively insignificant as those Christians believe both parties (Father and Son) work together as God over all Christians.
Jehovah’s Witnesses, and many ex-Jehovah’s Witnesses, are so hung up on what WT has taught them the relationship between the Father and Son is, and how WT taught them that belief effects their relationship with those two as acceptable Christians, that most of those people miss the obvious. I brought out some of this (obvious) already when I asked who is Christ referred to as being God to at Isaiah 9:6, John 1: 1, John 1:18 and other scriptures as well?
There are many reasons why some Christians believe the latter idea that I raised in paragraph one, that idea that the Father and Son work together as God over Christians. The direct pronouncement that both are God as I brought out is only one of those reasons. Here are just a couple more:
POINT #1
Isaiah 42:8 I am the Lord: that is my name: and my GLORY will I NOT GIVE ANOTHER
(could not contradict)
John 5:23 - All men should honor the Son "just as" they honor the Father. To fail to give this honor to the Son is to fail to properly honor the Father. "Just as" (kathos) is translated "even as" in KJV, ASV, NASB, RSV (cf. Thayer and Arndt & Gingrich).
*Point #1- Since the Bible is inspired why would John write ALL MEN should honor the Son JUST AS they honor the Father, and without doing so they fail to honor the Father, if honoring the Son as their GOD contradicts Isaiah 42:8? I see “just as” or “even as” meaning IN THE SAME WAY, not kind of like but different. Plus John wrote those are the words of Christ, who also stated all things the Father has are his; that the Father judges no one and that only he does the judging of everyone; and that the basis FOR judgment depends on one thing only, that is on how individuals respond to Christ. Are not people judged on their response to God? If so, what position does Christ hold before humans?
POINT #2
You probably already heard some Christians claim Christ named himself I AM- the same designation God gave himself at Exodus 3:14. But you might not be aware that Christ gave himself that same designation in another place as well. Because in translating from Greek those words were changed in many Bible translations. That other place is when the disciples saw him walk on water. When they were afraid because of the storm Christ was attempting to calm their fear and he called himself "I AM" which is the same designation God gave to Moses at the burning bush. Look up Matthew 14:22-33 and Mark 6: 45-52 in a Greek to English interlinear Bible. In the original languages you'll find that designation in those four scriptures, Exodus 3:14, Matthew 14;22-33. Mark 6:45-52, and John 8:58.
So here’s my point. When Christ said “I and the Father are one” he wasn’t referring to the oneness he wants us to share with him and the Father he expressed at John chapter 17 as WT taught us. Scriptures teach the opposite. They teach that he shares the position the Father has before us, if you accept it. And the point of scripture is to reveal to us and the universe who accepts they are both over us in that capacity, and why individuals choose to accept them in that way or not. For those that accept them as God does it make a difference which one was speaking at any time, or which one has his name named as a certain day? They work together. But I do see your point Tadua, as WT minimizes Christ’s position and in a delusion of grandeur elevates that of those it claims are anointed Jehovah’s Witnesses and their WT organization. I haven’t read most of your article yet, just enough to get the gist of it. But I will soon read it completely.
Take care buddy!!!
Comment by messenger on 2019-05-25 22:20:18
Read your article Tadua,
GOOD WORK!!!
Comment by messenger on 2019-05-25 22:40:22
One final point before I sign out. This was brought out near the end of Tadua's article.
IN THE OLDEST MANUSCRIPTS IN EXISTENCE TODAY OF THE NEW TESTAMENT, NONE CONTAIN THE TETRAGRAMMATON, OR ANY GREEK NAME REPLACING IT, LIKE THE ENGLISH NAME JEHOVAH WAS USED LATER TO REPLACE THE TET IN OUR BIBLES.
The only part, and it is just a part of the tet, which appears in those earliest manuscripts is written only in the book of Revelation, as part of the word we call Hallelujah. The last part of it is jah. But it was not written as the tet.
Comment by Dajo on 2019-06-11 07:48:58
Very heartwarming discussion and comments.
Thank you all.