Granted, it appears that what is really meant is that it is foolish to make material things one's goal while neglecting spiritual things. Of course that is merely speculation. What is actually said, is that owning such luxurious things is foolishness. No supplementary clarification is given to the reader. This will surely appear to many readers to be a derogatory and judgmental position. Given the Bible's very negative take on foolishness (Pr. 5:23; 17:12; 19:3; 24:9) is this really the point we intended to get across?
In a recent video titled What Did Thomas Mean When He Said “My Lord and My God"? it seems that I did a less than adequate job explaining how Scripture shows that Thomas couldn’t have been calling Jesus his God. I say…